Pauline resurrection: Jewish or Greco-Roman?

By Anonymous -
"The dying/rising gods have nothing to do with the resurrection of Jesus-at least not for Paul. He comes from a basis in Pharisaic Judaism to announce that the general resurrection has already begun with that of Jesus-that is why he can argue in 1 Corinthians 15:12-20 that no Jesus resurrection means no general resurrection; no general resurrection means no Jesus resurrection. They stand or fall together for Paul, and he could never even imagine that 'resurrection' is some special privilege for Jesus on the analogy of a dying-rising divinity." (John Dominic Crossan, from his response to Robert Price in The Historical Jesus: Five Views, p.85)

Comments

Jason Engwer said…
Thanks, JD. I hadn't heard of that book before seeing your post. I just ordered it.
11/09/2009 01:43:00 AM
Jason Pratt said…
I take it this means JDC is well and truly past his Cynic Sage phase now?

JRP
11/09/2009 05:12:00 AM
BK said…
I only see this as his criticizing the views of Robert Price that he doesn't think hold any water.
11/09/2009 07:19:00 AM
Jason Pratt said…
Good point; JDC might be proposing that Paul was superimposing Pharisaic Jewish notions onto the Cynic-Sagey-ness of the real historical Jesus, or something like that.

JRP
11/10/2009 05:54:00 AM
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